It turned out that arguing that the effect of the word "State" on the word "free" requires us to take the latter like I described in the core post (post 236), I have been looking in another galaxy for what is closer than being in an adjacent room. Capitalizing the word "state" imply acknowledging the existence of that state as a state in the world. This acknowledgement imply taking the interface of that state to the world as representing the whole state. In other words, the inside of a State is dissolved in that representation as one indivisible thing. This leaves freedom at the granularity level for the whole state in the world as the only way the word "free" can be applicable here.
Despite that I had already thought about how a country may acquire a statehood when I wondered about why the word "country" was replaced with the word "state" to begin with, I still did all the roaming I did here and beyond before seeing this much more direct and absolute proof.
Since the capitalization of the word "state" implies such potential, that does not fit with general use of this capitalization just for the purpose of locality of reference. Therefore the first comma in the Amendment may not be needed to make the case that the word "State" in the Amendment applies also on States outside this union, unless that word is taken as applicable to no State. That is because the word "free" here, as pointed out above, implies excluding internal States in the union for not being free at the granularity level of a state in the world. However, I still want to point out that the other side of this same coin can be used to answer my question to the supporters of the state right theory, in the post below.
Because it is easy to slip here, I want to remind again that I am discussing the applicability related to the part before the second comma, not the part after if the former activates the latter.
Since the capitalization of the word "state" implies such potential, that does not fit with general use of this capitalization just for the purpose of locality of reference. Therefore the first comma in the Amendment may not be needed to make the case that the word "State" in the Amendment applies also on States outside this union, unless that word is taken as applicable to no State. That is because the word "free" here, as pointed out above, implies excluding internal States in the union for not being free at the granularity level of a state in the world. However, I still want to point out that the other side of this same coin can be used to answer my question to the supporters of the state right theory, in the post below.
Because it is easy to slip here, I want to remind again that I am discussing the applicability related to the part before the second comma, not the part after if the former activates the latter.
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