The religious exemption provision is a very strong point for contrary views here for the purpose of capitalizing the word "state", but that is only because the Bill of Rights was, as I argued before, very wrongly taken as applicable only to the federal government. Otherwise it is very easy to see that as protection against the States without any need to see the Amendment direct at them first. Actually, while sides like the one with collective view may argue that the idea to focus the Amendment on the States developed later, how much the view that the Bill of Rights applies only to the federal government fit with such absence of anything suggesting targeting the states in the first version of the Amendment although it brings that religious exemption provision?
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