Again, I want to go back to ask how much people here are unexcused for interpreting the Second Amendment this wrongly despite its clear meaning to everybody else? This is not like something that can be only witnessed and tested in a lab or an internally felt or experienced thing so one may doubt if others can really see the same thing, for people here to act like they are alone in the world. The Amendment is a text that can be submitted to anybody to read and was written in a language that is already either the first or the second for most of the world. I would be very surprised if any reasonable percentage of people would not be inclined to my view far more than the current interpretation and that they would accept taking my view as the interpretation for the Amendment at least at the same proof standard the Supreme Court here accepts interpretation for other amendments and like sky to earth at the level the court may interpret things when it gets hijacked internally by psychological motives like the way it took the establishment clause of the First Amendment. Actually, would there be any reasonable percentage considering the current interpretation as an alternative unless it is brought to them, to begin with? What has been going on here is much more like having a party than serious interpretation. Do you really think that any normal person outside would be anywhere close to taking "being" far from its direct meaning and that the part before the second comma was not intended to affect execution of the part after it like it has been taken here? If you do then lets do this test.
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