Yesterday I watched a part of a video that reminded me of Justice Scalia's position of limiting the interpretation of the constitution to the meaning at the time. I have not yet put much attention and thought about what should my position be or how I define it with regard to that issue of general interpretation path for the constitution. However, regardless of what my position would be ,I wonder how such interpretation view gets applied by default but stopped short of being sufficiently applied when there was an intentional pointing to the current status by using the word "being" in the second amendment and the part about the necessity of a militia was taken to always apply unconditionally?
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